I'm a bit confused about this whole story, I have to admit, and I hope someone can help me clarify my thoughts on the matter.
I'm particularly confused about what the Sackler family, whether individually or collectively, have done or not done (or are said to have done or not done) of their own motion, and what individuals employed by companies they own are said to have done.
Similarly, I'm a bit confused about the roles of doctors, pharmaceutical representatives and patients in all this.
Some years ago, as I've now and again mentioned, I was treated for throat cancer and radiotherapy to the throat is very very painful indeed.
No hugs please -- it was a horrible experience but now I am through it, which I wouldn't have been, I don't think, without the fentanyl patches the oncologist prescribed for pain relief, along with plenty of liquid morphine for "spike" pain as and when I felt I needed it (several times a day over several weeks)
Anyway, I took the meds as directed by my oncologist and after about 3 months, as soon as he told me to cut down on them, with a view to giving them up altogether, I did.
I experienced no particularly difficulty or discomfort so doing, either, presumably because the oncologist knew what he was doing when it came to dealing with pain management (oncologists have to be, after all) and I'm reasonably responsible about following medical advice and instructions, particularly when I don't want to run the risk of becoming addicted to something.
However, had things turned out differently, and, assuming I'd not abused the painkillers or ignored my doctor's advice, I'd been minded to sue someone, I'd have started with the doctor who got me addicted to them or failed to monitor my progress sufficiently closely rather than with the ultimate owners of the company who manufactured the pharmaceuticals.
I know that drugs companies spend huge amounts on trying to impress doctors about their various products but, at least as I understand it, prescribing is pretty straightforward -- several doctors have told me, in conversation, that once something is properly diagnosed, a senior practice nurse could, most of the time, do what they do and take the diagnosis, look it up in something like MIMS and follow the recommendations there.
In other words, I expect -- and reasonably so in the UK at least -- that prescriptions are based on a professional consensus about the most effective treatments and medications, contraindications and so on, underpinned by the hospital/NHS trust's guidelines and those of
NICE.
Are people going after the Sacklers because theirs are the deepest pockets, or are there some particular misdeeds in this affair that are alleged to be their fault and theirs alone?